ICBN interpretation please?
nadia.talent at UTORONTO.CA
Wed Mar 15 11:56:37 CST 2006
On 15 Mar 2006, at 08:51, Thomas G. Lammers wrote:
> In any event, the last sentence makes it clear that if Andre said
> they were formae, they are formae.
On 15 Mar 2006, at 09:07, Carmine COLACINO wrote:
> If the author stated the infraspecific rank he referred to were
> then, it appears to me, and according to the article you mention
> which ends
> in " unless this would be contrary to the author's statements in
> the same
> publication" that they must indeed be correctly considered as such
> (that is
> as formae, as the author clearly stated). IMHO.
Thanks. I see that it is a reasonable interpretation. Rather
confusing wording in the article though, particularly given the
precedent (article 18.2) of translating "order" to "family" if the
author intended it to be a family. I had thought that the article was
stating that in the past terms such as "forma" were used when
"varietas" was most likely closer to the modern meaning.
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