[Taxacom] human neanderthal genes shared or inherited
calabar.john at gmail.com
Thu Apr 14 16:53:13 CDT 2016
I have a curiosity question which reflects my lack of expertise in the
field of matching genes and inferring phylogeny. There is a lot of
reference to humans and neanderthals sharing genes - or that various humans
have 'neanderthal' genes and so their mutual ancestors must have interbred.
Would I be correct that the interbreeding is inferred because the shared
genes are not in all the human population?
Or, how does one discount the possibility that the genes are shared by
inheritance from a former common ancestor and now just less common so they
are not frequent enough to occur in all the modern human population?
I have no axe to grind on this subject, just curious to know how the
interpretation is substantiated or whether there are inbuilt assumptions
involved. Hopefully one or more Taxacom subscribers are familiar with the
human-neanderthal molecular studies.
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